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High-Yield NEET SS Medicine Infectious Disease Questions

Feb 21, 2024

High-Yield NEET SS Medicine Infectious Disease Questions

Preparing for the NEET SS exam can feel like navigating a maze, but fear not! We have got the perfect strategy to help you gauge your readiness by giving you a sneak peek into the exam format.

Dive into the NEET SS high-yield questions to gain insight into what to expect. Get started by practicing the questions below, boost your confidence and fine tune your NEET SS Medicine preparation.

  1. A 28-year-old male student is seen in an urgent care facility. He reports that his friend’s dog bit his hand 1 hour ago and presents with a moderate injury to the hand. The dog is apparently in good health. Examination of the affected hand reveals several small puncture wounds, with surrounding superficial abrasions. The patient does not have any allergies and does not recall receiving any childhood immunizations. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
  1. Thorough cleansing of the wound with soap and water, followed by antimicrobial therapy for 4 days
  2. Wound irrigation and antimicrobial therapy for 4 days, with observation of the dog for 10 days
  3. Wound irrigation, tetanus and diphtheria toxoid immunization and antimicrobial therapy for 7 days
  4. Irrigation, tetanus and diphtheria toxoid immunization, tetanus immunoglobulin, antimicrobial therapy for 4 days, and observation of the dog for 10 days, with repeat tetanus and diphtheria immunizations in 1 and 6 months
  1. A 56-year-old non-immunocompromised male presents to the emergency department with a 3-year history of weight loss, arthralgias, diarrhea, slowly progressive dementia. Today, the patient demonstrates evidence of supranuclear vertical gaze palsy, myoclonic jerks, and pendular vergence ocular movements with concurrent masticatory muscles contraction (also known as oculomasticatory myorhythmia). Which CNS infection should be investigated?
  1. Brucella miletensis
  2. Tropheryma whipplei
  3. West Nile virus
  4. Listeria monocytogenes
  1. An 80-year-old male who underwent a coronary artery bypass graft 3 weeks ago is readmitted to the cardiac unit with a fever to 101°F and leukocytosis to 16/uL. Blood cultures grow Pseudomonas aeruginosa in 3 ⁄ 4 bottles. On exams, he is hemodynamically stable. A lung exam reveals no added sounds. His sternotomy scar is healing well with no surrounding erythema or discharge and no sternal tenderness. However, the exam is significant for a right groin wound at the previous femoral catheter insertion site. The ulcer margins are necrotic, and there is pus oozing from the site. You start him on piperacillin/tazobactam. What is the next step in management?
  1. Switch to ciprofloxacin
  2. Surgical debridement of the groin wound and deep wound cultures
  3. Switch to meropenem
  4. Superficial cultures from groin wound

4. A four month old girl presents for a well visit. The child’s older brother has missed school for the past three days with headache, fever, coryza, and cough. Pregnancy, birth history, and past medical history are unremarkable. The child is up to date on all recommended immunizations. Point of care testing in the older sibling is positive for influenza B. Which of the following is most appropriate to prevent the infant from developing influenza?

  1. Live attenuated vaccine
  2. Inactivated vaccine
  3. Oseltamivir
  4. Amantidine

5. A 45-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents to the emergency department with severe respiratory distress, fever, and bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray. Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of interleukin-6 (IL-6) and ferritin. Which of the following complications is associated with the cytokine storm observed in severe COVID-19 cases?

  1. Agranulocytosis
  2. Thrombotic microangiopathy
  3. Cardiogenic shock
  4. Hypothyroidism

6. A 25-year-old patient presents with sudden-onset high-grade fever, severe headache, retro-orbital pain, and petechial rash. Laboratory results reveal thrombocytopenia and evidence of plasma leakage. The patient is at risk for developing Dengue Shock Syndrome (DSS). What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying DSS?

  1. Hypersensitivity reaction leading to capillary leak.
  2. Activation of the coagulation cascade causing disseminated intravascular coagulation
  3. Direct viral cytopathic effect on endothelial cells.
  4. Immune complex deposition in small vessels.

7. A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents with a history of developing a rash consistent with varicella-zoster virus infection at 32 weeks gestation. Despite receiving varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG), she delivers a preterm infant at 36 weeks gestation. The neonate develops a diffuse vesicular rash on the second day of life along with respiratory distress and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following complications is most likely associated with neonatal varicella?

  1. Necrotizing enterocolitis.
  2. Hemorrhagic pneumonia.
  3. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  4. Congenital heart block.

8. A 35-year-old male with a known history of HIV presents with cognitive impairment, behavioral changes, and motor dysfunction. The clinician suspects neurological involvement of HIV. According to the Frascati criteria, which of the following findings is indicative of HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND)?

  1. CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm³.
  2. Positive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) culture for HIV.
  3. Abnormalities on brain imaging consistent with HIV encephalitis.
  4. Impairment in at least two cognitive domains on neuropsychological testing.

9. A 42-year-old individual presents with fever, hemolysis, and altered mental status following a recent trip to a malaria-endemic area. Laboratory results show severe anemia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated serum lactate levels. Peripheral blood smear reveals ring forms and trophozoites consistent with Plasmodium falciparum. The patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg, and there are signs of acute kidney injury. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this complicated case?

  1. Administer intramuscular artemether.
  2. Initiate exchange transfusion.
  3. Perform a lumbar puncture to rule out cerebral malaria.
  4. Begin intravenous quinidine therapy.

10. A 32-year-old female presents with sudden onset fever, cough, and body aches. On physical examination, she has a temperature of 102.5°F (39.2°C), generalized muscle tenderness, and a non-productive cough. Rapid influenza testing is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate antiviral treatment for this patient?

  1. Amantadine
  2. Oseltamivir
  3. Acyclovir
  4. Ribavirin

11. A 32-year-old ecologist working in a remote region is bitten by an unidentified mammal. Concerned about potential rabies exposure, the patient seeks immediate medical attention. Steller stain, known for its specificity, is most commonly employed in visualizing a distinctive feature of the rabies virus. What precise viral component does Steller stain predominantly highlight?

  1. Rabies virus RNA genome.
  2. Rabies virus nucleocapsid protein.
  3. Rabies virus matrix glycoprotein.
  4. Rabies virus fusion peptide.

12. A 17-year-old male presents with yellowish crusts on his bilateral axillary hairs. He relates that this symptom started about a month ago, soon after he started frequenting the gym. He has no other symptoms or skin complaints. What is the most likely causative organism?

Corynebacterium tenuis
  1. Tinea verrucosum
  2. Corynebacterium minutissimum
  3. Microsporum gypseum
  4. Corynebacterium tenuis

13. A 35-year-old male with a history of cystic fibrosis undergoes a bilateral lung transplant procedure because of progressive respiratory failure from his disease. The transplant procedure was performed without incident, and the patient is making a good recovery. The transplant team plans to discharge the patient within the next few days. Toward the end of the hospital stay, the patient is allowed to shower. Later that evening, he develops a cough with sputum production, shortness of breath, and a fever. A sputum sample is sent to microbiology and is significant for the organisms depicted below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Fusarium solani
  1. Fusarium oxysporum
  2. Aspergillus
  3. Exophila
  4. Fusarium solani

14. An intubated patient in the intensive care unit has a suspected hypersensitivity reaction. The patient’s family reveals that the patient has a known penicillin allergy. While reviewing the list of the patient’s current medications, the clinician notes that no penicillins are listed, but the patient is receiving cephalosporin. Which of the following is a fourth-generation cephalosporin?

  1. Cefepime
  2. Cephalexin
  3. Cefaclor
  4. Cefotaxime

15. A 32-year-old female presents with complaints of a recent cough and shortness of breath for the last 4 days. The patient suffers from intermittent urinary tract infections, which are managed with therapy as needed with nitrofurantoin. You suspect nitrofurantoin is the cause of her likely drug-induced pulmonary symptoms. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding acute nitrofurantoin-induced pulmonary complications?

  1. The patient is more likely to have pulmonary vasculitis with eosinophilia
  2. The pulmonary reaction seen in this patient is a less common pulmonary reaction associated with nitrofurantoin
  3. The patient is more likely to have diffuse interstitial fibrosis
  4. Treatment with corticosteroids has shown a benefit in recovery.

16. A physician calls you about a patient in active labor, who was admitted earlier that morning. Upon admission, the patient was documented as having a varicella infection which was acquired 2 days prior to admission, which was confirmed by laboratory analysis. The physician is concerned about effects on the newborn.

Which of the following recommendations is most appropriate?

  1. There are no further recommendations at this time.
  2. The mother should be started on intravenous acyclovir as soon as possible
  3. The newborn should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin as soon as possible.
  4. The newborn should receive the varicella zoster vaccine as soon as possible.

17. A 4-year-old child presents to the OPD with a recent viral type illness. In addition to his typical viral symptoms, he has erythematous papules and vesicles with a surrounding darker erythematous border on palms, soles, and perioral area. Which of the following is true of this infection?

  1. It is caused by Coxsackievirus A16 and Enterovirus B72.
  2. Oral-fecal transmission is the sole mechanism of spread.
  3. It has an incubation period of several days to 1 week.
  4. Patients can expect to be affected for 3-4 weeks before resolution.

18. A 45-year-old male with a history of diabetes mellitus and obesity presents to the emergency department with a confirmed COVID-19 infection. His oxygen saturation is 90%, and he has mild respiratory distress and is at risk for progression. What therapeutic intervention is most appropriate to reduce the risk of progression to severe disease?

  1. Initiate treatment with hydroxychloroquine.
  2. Administer monoclonal antibody cocktails.
  3. Start high-dose corticosteroids.
  4. Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics.

19. A 32-year-old HIV-positive patient presents with a persistent dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and fever. Chest X-ray reveals diffuse interstitial infiltrates. The CD4 count is 150 cells/mm³. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for confirming Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)?

  1. Blood culture for Pneumocystis jirovecii
  2. Sputum smear stained with Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) stain.
  3. High-resolution chest computed tomography
  4. Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage

20. A 7-year-old child presents with a high fever, cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis. On physical examination, Koplik spots are noted on the buccal mucosa. The child has not received the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine. Which of the following best describes the genome of the causative agent in this case?

  1. Double-stranded DNA
  2. Single-stranded DNA
  3. Double-stranded RNA
  4. Single-stranded RNA

Hope you found this blog helpful for your NEET SS Infectious Diseases Preparation. For more informative and interesting posts like these, keep reading PrepLadder’s blogs. 

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