NEET-PG 2025 Recall Questions - Download the FREE PDF

The NEET-PG 2025 exam has just concluded. And, students are already discussing about the recall questions.

These are typically the questions that candidates remember after walking out of the exam hall. They are bound to help the future test takers. They can help the students understand the exam pattern, frequently tested topics, and the level of the difficulty.

We have compiled a list of the NEET PG 2025 recall questions on the basis of students' inputs.

Whether you are a candidate eager to review your performance or a future aspirant looking for insights into the exam trends, this collection will give you a clear picture of what NEET-PG 2025 looked like inside the exam hall.

You can Download NEET-PG 2025 Recall Questions FREE PDF Here.

Anatomy

Q. The image below highlights the jugular foramen. Which of the following does NOT pass through this foramen?

1. Hypoglossal nerve
2. Accessory nerve
3. Glossopharyngeal nerve
4. Vagus nerve

Q. The image shows a congenital cardiac defect. Abnormal development of which branch of aortic arch leads to this defect?

1. Right 4th aortic arch
2. Left 6th aortic arch
3. Right 6th aortic arch
4. Left 4th aortic arch

Biochemistry

Q. A child presents with a history of fractures, multiple petechiae, perifollicular hemorrhages, and gum bleeding. Which of the following enzyme defects is involved?

1. Lysyl oxidase
2. Prolyl hydroxylase
3. Tyrosinase
4. Alkaline phosphatase

Q. A person with jaundice presented with a history of bleeding and symptoms normalised after giving Vitamin K injection. The probable cause is?

1. Biliary obstruction 
2. Alpha antitrypsin deficiency
3. Autoimmune hepatitis
4. Factor XI deficiency

Pathology

Q. A child presents with visual disturbances and delayed growth. Imaging reveals a suprasellar mass, and histopathology shows the presence of "wet keratin" (compact, eosinophilic anucleate keratin). What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Craniopharyngioma
2. Medulloblastoma
3. Glioma
4. Pituitary adenoma

Q. A 16-year-old boy presents with jaundice and splenomegaly. His father had a similar illness during adolescence. 

MCHC : high?

What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. IDA
2. Hereditary spherocytosis
3. Thalassemia major
4. AIHA

Pharmacology

Q. Benralizumab acts on which receptor?

1. IL 5
2. IL4
3. IL1
4. TNF alpha

Q. A woman diagnosed with migraine and has a family history of coronary artery disease has previously been treated with sumatriptan. What is the drug of choice for migraine prophylaxis?

1. Propranolol
2. Topiramate
3. Ergotamine
4. Naratriptan

Microbiology

Q.  Group A Streptococcus is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis in school-aged children. Which of the following bacterial components is primarily responsible for its attachment to fibronectin on the epithelial lining of the pharynx?

1. Lipoprotein
2. Lipoteichoic acid
3. Capsule
4. Flagella

Q. A 25-year-old sewage worker presents with fever for 1 week and weakness for 1 day. Laboratory evaluation reveals elevated bilirubin and decreased urine output. Conjunctival redness? What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Brucellosis
2. Weil's disease
3. Enteric fever

FMT

Q. A patient is brought to the emergency department with acute onset of severe abdominal pain, throat irritation followed by vomiting that contains blood and bile, and diarrhea that initially appears bloody but later becomes colorless, odorless, and rice-water-like. On examination, a distinct garlicky odor is noted in the breath.Which of the following is the most likely agent responsible for the poisoning?

1. Arsenic
2. Phosphorus
3. Aluminium phosphide
4. Croton seeds

Q. A 16-year-old girl and a 23-year-old boy undergo medical examination following allegations of rape made by the girl’s parents. The girl states the sexual act was consensual, and no injuries are found on examination. According to the law, what is the legal status of the consent in this case?

1. Consent is invalid as the girl is under 18 years
2. No punishment since the act was consensual
3. No punishment since there are no injuries
4. Parents must prove that the act was non-consensual

PSM

Q. A diabetic patient with COVID-19 dies in the hospital. Which type of surveillance does this death report fall under?

1. Passive surveillance
2. Active surveillance
3. Sentinel surveillance
4. Syndromic surveillance

Q. In the “De facto” method of census data collection, information is collected based on which of the following?

1. Place of birth
2. Location at the time of enumeration
3. Usual place of residence
4. Place of employment

ENT

Q. A 72-year-old female smoker presents with a long history of hoarseness and difficulty swallowing. Laryngoscopy and biopsy confirm a large, advanced squamous cell carcinoma that involves both vocal cords and extends into the subglottic region and the thyroid cartilage. The tumor is not amenable to radiation therapy alone. 

Based on the extent and location of the tumor, which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to ensure complete tumor removal with adequate margins and control the disease?

1. Partial laryngectomy 
2. Total laryngectomy 
3. Emergency tracheostomy
4. Submental tracheostomy

Q. A 30-year-old male presents to the clinic with a history of recurrent ear infections and a recent "popping" sensation in his left ear. Otoscopic examination of the left ear reveals a central perforation of the tympanic membrane.

The pure tone audiometry (PTA) results show the following:

Right Ear: Air conduction and bone conduction thresholds are within normal limits.

Left Ear: A significant air-bone gap is present, with bone conduction thresholds within the normal range.

Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis regarding the type of hearing loss?

1. Left conductive hearing loss
2. Left sensorineural hearing loss
3. Right conductive hearing loss
4. Right sensorineural hearing loss

Ophthalmology

Q. Which of the following is true about orbital cellulitis?

1. It is present anterior to the orbital septum
2. Treated effectively with topical antibiotics
3. Presents with proptosis, orbital swelling, normal pupil, and extraocular movements
4. Ethmoid sinusitis is the most common etiology

Q. A 15-year-old tall boy with long limbs presents to the OPD. On ocular examination, bilateral ectopia lentis is noted. Which gene is most likely affected in this inherited disorder?

1. COL5A
2. PAX6
3. TGFβR2
4. FBN1 (Fibrillin-1)

Pediarics

Q. A child presents with developmental delay and coarse facial features. Enzyme assay reveals a deficiency of α-L-iduronidase. Which of the following substances is most likely to accumulate in this condition?

1. Dermatan sulfate + Chondroitin sulfate
2. Only Dermatan sulfate
3. Dermatan sulfate + Heparan sulfate
4. Heparan sulfate + Chondroitin sulfate

Q. A 6-month-old infant presents with recurrent infections and failure to thrive. Laboratory investigations reveal a deficiency of adenosine deaminase (ADA). Which of the following immunodeficiency disorders is most likely associated?

1. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)
2. Hypogammaglobulinemia
3. DiGeorge Syndrome
4. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

OBG

Q. A 36-week pregnant woman is diagnosed with preeclampsia and started on magnesium sulfate therapy. According to the Pritchard regimen, what is the total loading dose of magnesium sulfate administered initially?

1. 4 grams
2. 10 grams
3. 14 grams
4. 5 grams

Q. A woman develops atonic postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) after vaginal delivery that does not respond to initial medical management. What is the next best step in management in labour room?

1. Compression sutures
2. Bakri balloon tamponade
3. Devascularization surgery
4. Immediate hysterectomy

Surgery

Q. A 30 year old female was brought to EMR after fire on examination of lower limb full-thickness burns and deep partial-thickness burns were present involving it Circumferentially, procedure was performed as given below, identify the procedure?

1. Escharotomy
2. Debridement
3. Excised to healthy tissue fat/fascia
4. Early skin grafting

Q. Identify the fistula according to park’s classification?

1. Intersphincteric
2. Supra-sphincteric  
3. Extra-sphincteric  
4. Trans-sphincteric high  

Medicine 

Q. Patient came with severe headache and seizures. Sodium on admission was 98 meq/L. We have started correction with 3% saline and now after 24 hours of infusion sodium is 110 meq/L. Patient develops mutism and altered sensorium. Which investigation will you perform now? 

1. MRI Head 
2. LP for CSF biochemistry 
3. Brainstem evoked potentials  
4. EEG 

Q. A 30 year old man with 6 month past history of PND and SOB. On examination, JVP is elevated with irregularly irregular pulse and tender hepatomegaly and MDM. past medical history of ARF. Which of the following is not seen in this patient? 

1. Presystolic accentuation of mid-diastolic murmur is hallmark feature 
2. Patient has increased risk of embolic stroke 
3. Absent a wave in JVP
4. Right heart failure

Q. What is the most probable diagnosis based on the image provided?

1. RUL collapse.
2. RUL consolidation
3. Bronchogenic carcinoma
4. Lung abscess

Q. Which is the earliest imaging modality used to detect ankylosing spondylitis?

1. MRI sacroiliac joint
2. CT sacroiliac joint
3. X ray
4. Bone scan

Anaesthesia 

Q.  A 35-year-old male undergoing abdominal surgery under general anesthesia develops sudden generalized muscle rigidity, rapid increase in body temperature, and tachycardia shortly after administration of sevoflurane and succinylcholine. His end-tidal CO₂ is rising despite controlled ventilation. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?

1. Dantrolene
2. Diazepam
3. Pancuronium
4. Vecuronium

Q. A patient undergoing surgery receives a muscle relaxant and soon develops flushing and rashes over the neck and anterior chest. Which of the following muscle relaxants is most commonly associated with this reaction?

1. Atracurium
2. Cisatracurium
3. Vecuronium
4. Pancuronium

Orthopedics

Q. A 40-year-old man presents with discomfort in one of his joints. Synovial fluid aspiration reveals rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent crystals under polarized light microscopy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Gout
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Pseudogout
4. Osteoarthritis

Q. A 20-year-old man presents with chronic back pain that is worse in the morning and improves with physical activity. He also has a history of anterior uveitis. A lumbar spine X-ray shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next investigation for early diagnosis?

1. CT spine
2. MRI sacroiliac joints
3. X-ray thoracolumbar spine
4. Bone scan

Psychiatry 

Q. A female patient presents with flashbacks and a history of forgetting about her father's death in a road traffic accident 2 weeks ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)
2. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
3. Dissociative Amnesia
4. Adjustment Disorder

Q. A person was found in a bizarre location, appearing confused. The caretaker reports he had no memory of how he got there, and the patient is unaware of his travel to the location. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Dissociative fugue
2. Dissociative identity disorder
3. Dissociative amnesia
4. Psychotic episode

Dermatology

Q. A 20-year-old patient presents with a non-progressive hypopigmented lesion on the trunk. On Wood’s lamp examination, there is white accentuation. Diascopy is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Vitiligo 
2. Nevus depigmentosus 
3. Nevus anemicus 
4. Indeterminate leprosy

Q. A patient presents with an indurated plaque on the cheek with central atrophy. Chest X-ray reveals apical calcification. Which of the following tests is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?

1. Mantoux test 
2. Slit skin smear
3. PCR
4. Probe test

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