ENT Important Questions for NEET PG/FMGE 2026

It’s crucial to have a deep understanding of both theoretical knowledge and clinical applications when it comes to acing ENT for NEET PG/FMG exams.

If you can master the vast and extensive syllabus of ENT, no one can stop you from acing NEET PG/FMG exams.

To make it easier and more convenient for you, we have compiled a list of high-yield questions that are naked frequently. And the fact that we have given detailed explanations for every question is sure to help you strengthen your concepts and enhance retention.

Read the blog further to get all the questions and their explanations on fleek.

Q1. A 50-year-old woman presents with a traumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane. The image is given below. What type of perforation is this?​

1. Central 
2. Subtotal
3. Posterosuperior
4. Attic 

Answer: 4) Attic 

Q2. A 5-year-old child is diagnosed with Congenital cholesteatoma. According to Levenson's criteria, which factor is NOT used to diagnose this condition?

1. Whitish mass behind a normal tympanic membrane
2. Intact pars flaccida and pars tensa
3. Family history of Congenital Cholesteatoma
4. No prior ear surgeries

Answer: 3) Family history of Congenital Cholesteatoma

Explanation:

The child’s presentation aligns with congenital cholesteatoma, which is diagnosed using Levenson's criteria:

• Whitish mass visible behind an intact tympanic membrane
• Intact pars flaccida and pars tensa
• No history of ear discharge or surgeries
• Exclusion of conditions such as canal atresia

Also read: Orthopaedics Important Questions for NEET PG/FMGE'25

Q3. The image below of the auditory pathway depicts auditory signals travelling from the cochlea to the primary auditory cortex and passing through the following structures in sequences A, B, C, and D. Which sequence correctly identifies the order of these structures?

1. A - Cochlear Nucleus; B - Superior Olivary Complex; C - Inferior Colliculus; D - Medial Geniculate Nucleus
2. A - Medial Geniculate Nucleus; B - Cochlear Nucleus; C - Inferior Colliculus; D - Superior Olivary Complex
3. A - Inferior Colliculus; B - Cochlear Nucleus; C - Medial Geniculate Nucleus; D - Superior Olivary Complex
4. A - Superior Olivary Complex; B - Medial Geniculate Nucleus; C - Cochlear Nucleus; D - Inferior Colliculus

Answer: 1)  A - Cochlear Nucleus; B - Superior Olivary Complex; C - Inferior Colliculus; D - Medial Geniculate Nucleus

The correct sequence of structures in the auditory pathway, from the cochlea to the primary auditory cortex is:

1. Cochlear Nucleus: The initial relay station in the brainstem where signals from the cochlea are first processed.
2. Superior Olivary Complex: Involved in sound localisation and binaural processing.
3. Inferior Colliculus: An important midbrain structure for auditory processing.
4. Medial Geniculate Nucleus: The final relay in the thalamus that sends auditory signals to the primary auditory cortex.

Q4. A 30-year-old male with a history of chronic suppurative otitis media complaints of fever with chills and rigors, ear pain, and headache. On examination, he has mastoid tenderness. Fundoscopy reveals papilledema and engorgement of retinal veins when the jugular vein is compressed. A CT scan is done, as shown below. Which radiological findings are most consistent with lateral/sigmoid sinus thrombophlebitis?​

1. Griesinger Sign 
2. Delta sign
3. Ring enhancement
4. Crescent sign

Answer: 2) Delta sign 

The "Delta sign" is the radiological finding on contrast-enhanced CT or MR venography, indicating a filling defect due to thrombus within the sinus. 

Also read: Essential Questions About Ear in ENT

Q5. A 55-year-old woman experiences brief vertigo when turning in bed. A test is performed as shown below and horizontal nystagmus is observed. Which of the following tests was performed?

1. Head impulse test
2. Dix-Hallpike maneuver 
3. Supine roll test
4. Epley maneuver

Answer: 3) Supine roll test

Explanation: The supine roll test is used to diagnose horizontal semicircular canal BPPV. In this test, the patient lies supine, and the head is turned to each side. The presence of horizontal nystagmus, which is observed in this position, confirms the diagnosis of horizontal canal BPPV. 

Q6. Which of the following incisions is most appropriate when ligating the anterior ethmoidal artery to control anterior epistaxis?

1. Lynch-Howarth incision
2. Sublabial incision
3. Gullwing incision
4. Weber-Ferguson incision

Answer: 1) Lynch-Howarth incision

Explanation: 

The Lynch-Howarth incision is the most appropriate for accessing the medial wall of the orbit to ligate the anterior ethmoidal artery. 

Q7. A 35-year-old man presents with nasal obstruction, recurrent nasal bleeding, and a mass protruding from his nasal cavity. On examination, a polypoidal, pink-colored mass with white dots on the surface is noted. It bleeds easily in touch. A biopsy is shown below. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

1. Amphotericin B
2. Cyclophosphamide 
3. Dapsone
4. Complete excision of the mass

Answer: 4) Complete excision of the mass

Explanation: 

• The clinical presentation and biopsy showing sporangia with spores is most consistent with rhinosporidiosis. 
• The primary treatment is the complete excision of the mass with a diathermy knife and cauterization of its base.

Also read: Essential One-Liners in ENT: Key Facts, Diagnoses & Treatments

Q8. A 32-year-old patient presents with complaints of retro-orbital pain and occasional visual disturbances. CT imaging of the sinuses reveals a posterior ethmoid air cell extending superiorly and laterally to the sphenoid sinus, impinging on the optic nerve. What is the most likely anatomical variant responsible for these symptoms?

1. Onodi cell
2. Agger Nasi cell
3. Haller cell
4. Frontal recess cell

Answer: 1) Onodi cell

Explanation: 

Onodi Cell is a posterior ethmoid air cell that extends superiorly and laterally to the sphenoid sinus, close to the optic nerve. Compression of the optic nerve can lead to retro-orbital pain and visual disturbances.

Q9. A 30-year-old male presents with chronic nasal obstruction, headaches, and frequent nosebleeds. On examination, there is a shelf-like projection felt along the nasal septum. The image below describes the obstruction. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms? 

1. Anterior dislocation of the septum
2. C-shaped deformity
3. Septal spur
4. S-shaped deformity

Answer: 3) Septal spur

Explanation:
The image shows a septal spur. Septal spur is associated with symptoms such as headaches and recurrent epistaxis, due to pressure and stretching of the vessels over the shelf-like projection at the bone-cartilage junction, fitting the patient’s presentation.

Also read: Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM): Symptoms & Treatment

Q10. A 45-year-old patient is experiencing persistent headaches and frontal sinus pain. A radiograph is taken with the patient in a chin-down position to assess the involvement of the frontal sinus. What is this imaging view called?

1. Waters' View
2. Pierre’s View
3. Caldwell View
4. Lateral View

Answer: 3)Caldwell View

Explanation:

The Caldwell view is specifically designed to visualize the frontal sinuses. In this view, the patient is positioned with the chin down, which projects the frontal sinuses prominently and clearly on the radiograph. 

Opacification of the frontal sinus, as seen in the image, indicates involvement of this sinus, which is best assessed using the Caldwell view.

Q11. Which of the following features is a characteristic of the infant larynx compared to the adult larynx?

1. The larynx is positioned opposite the C5 vertebra at rest.
2. The thyroid cartilage has a well-defined angle.
3. The subglottis is the narrowest part of the larynx.
4. The arytenoid cartilages are smaller and cover less of the posterior glottis.

Answer: 3) The subglottis is the narrowest part of the larynx.

Explanation:

In infants, the subglottis is the narrowest part, important for paediatric airway management.

Q12. A 55-year-old man presents with hoarseness and difficulty swallowing. Laryngoscopy reveals a tumor involving both vocal cords with normal mobility. There is no evidence of spread beyond the larynx or lymph node involvement. Based on the TNM classification of laryngeal carcinoma, what is the most appropriate staging for this patient's condition?

1. T1a N0 
2. T1b N0 
3. T2 N0 
4. T3 N0 

Answer: B) T1b N0

Explanation:

Based on the site of lesion, the patient has a diagnosis of glottic laryngeal carcinoma. Tumor limited to both vocal cords represents T1b stage of glottic laryngeal carcinoma. 

Also read: Disorders of the voice: Causes, Symptoms, Risk Factors, Diagnosis

Q13. A 36-year-old patient presents with severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and neck pain. On examination, there is noticeable swelling on the lateral aspect of the neck and a muffled voice. Imaging studies reveal an abscess located in the space between the superior and middle pharyngeal constrictor muscles. Which structures pass through this space?

1. Stylopharyngeus muscle and Recurrent laryngeal nerve
2. Levator veli palatini and Glossopharyngeal nerve
3. Levator veli palatini and Recurrent laryngeal nerve
4. Stylopharyngeus muscle and Glossopharyngeal nerve

Answer: 4) Stylopharyngeus muscle and Glossopharyngeal nerve

Explanation: 

The structures passing between the superior and middle pharyngeal constrictor muscles are the Stylopharyngeus muscle and the Glossopharyngeal nerve.

Q14. A 65-year-old man presents with progressive dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, chronic bad breath, and a gurgling sound in his neck during swallowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Achalasia  
2. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)  
3. Zenker's diverticulum  
4. Plummer-Vinson syndrome

Answer: 3) Zenker's diverticulum

Explanation:

Zenker's Diverticulum: Outpouching of the pharyngeal mucosa through a weak area in the posterior pharyngeal wall (Killian's dehiscence).

Also read: Aeroplane Ear: Causes, Symptoms, Risk Factors, Diagnosis

Q15. A 15 years old female who had a tonsillectomy 16 hours ago is currently under Post-Op monitoring, suddenly begins to bleed from the mouth and is noted to have hypotension with tachycardia. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

1. Premature membrane separation
2. Secondary infection
3. Injury to the tonsillar artery
4. Slipping of ligature

Answer: 4) Slipping of ligature

Explanation: 

• The most likely cause of bleeding in this scenario is the slipping of a ligature. During tonsillectomy, ligatures control bleeding from the tonsillar bed. 
• If a ligature slips or becomes dislodged, it can lead to sudden bleeding, often occurring within the first 24 hours post-operatively (Reactionary hemorrhage). This can result in hypotension and tachycardia due to blood loss.

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