OBG Image-based Practice For NEET PG 2026

Q1. A 32-year-old woman presents with abnormal uterine bleeding that has persisted for several months. The gynecologist decides to perform a D&C to obtain endometrial tissue samples for histopathological examination. The gynecologist needs to stabilize the cervix to gain better access to the uterine cavity. Which cervical lip should be held, and with which instrument shown below is used to stabilize the cervix during a D&C procedure?

1. Anterior cervical lip, using a Teale’s vulsellum
2. Posterior cervical lip, using a tenaculum
3. Anterior cervical lip, using a tenaculum
4. Posterior cervical lip, using a Teale’s vulsellum

Ans. 1) Anterior cervical lip, using a Teale’s vulsellum

Q2. A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective Lower Segment Cesarean Section (LSCS). Identify the instrument depicted in the image below?

1. Doyen’s Retractor
2. Balfour Self-Retaining Retractor
3. Deaver’s Retractor
4. Landon’s Retractor​​

​Ans. 2) Balfour Self-Retaining Retractor

Also read: Instruments Used in Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Q3. A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynecology clinic for a scheduled intrauterine device (IUD) insertion. During the procedure, the physician encounters difficulty in introducing the IUD due to a stenotic cervical canal. The instruments that can be used in the current scenario are shown in the picture. Which of the following uses is incorrect for the given instruments?​​

1. ​To dilate the cervix to facilitate intrauterine introduction of instruments (curette, devices like IUD)
2. To dilate the cervix to facilitate drainage of intrauterine collection (pyometra, hematometra)
3. To dilate the urethra in urethral stricture
4. To remove IUCD from the uterine cavity when the threads are missing.

Ans. 4) To remove IUCD from the uterine cavity when the threads are missing.

Q4. A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of lower abdominal pain. She has a history of intrauterine device (IUD) insertion one year ago and the threads could not be seen on examination. A Coronal CT scan was performed which is shown in the attached image. Which of the following is the correct instrument for managing this patient?​

1.  ​
2. ​​​
3. ​​​
4. ​​​​

Ans. 3) IUD Hook

​Also read: Ophthalmology Image-based Questions for NEET PG Preparation

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Q5. A 45-year-old woman presents to the gynecology clinic with complaints of irregular, heavy menstrual bleeding for the past six months. She was on hormonal replacement therapy in the past. The gynecologist decides to perform an endometrial sampling using the device shown in the image below. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the instrument?

1. The image shown is a Sharman endometrial biopsy curette, used for OPD-based endometrial biopsy.
2. It involves inserting a thin, flexible plastic tube into the uterine cavity to obtain a tissue sample.
3. The procedure is typically performed under anesthesia.
4. The image shown is Tischler cervical biopsy forceps, used for cervical biopsies.

​Ans. 2) It involves inserting a thin, flexible plastic tube into the uterine cavity to obtain a tissue sample.

Q6. A 35-year-old woman presents to the fertility clinic with a history of primary infertility for the past two years. Her menstrual cycles are regular, and she has no significant past medical history. The physician decides to evaluate the patency of her fallopian tubes, using the instrument shown in the picture. This instrument cannot be used for which of the following procedures?​

1. Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
2. Hydrotubation
3. Endometrial Biopsy
4. Laparoscopic Chromopertubation

Ans. 3) For Endometrial Biopsy

Q7. A 32-year-old woman inquiring about long-acting contraception options is considering an IUCD. What is the primary mechanism of action of the instrument in the image?​

1. Inhibition of sperm motility
2. Prevention of fertilization
3. Thickening of cervical mucus
4. Inhibition of ovulation

Ans. 2) Prevention of fertilization

Also read: ENT Image Based Questions for NEET PG

Q8. A 30 year old woman presents with difficulty sitting and walking due to the pain. On physical examination, a tender, fluctuant mass is palpated in the right inferior labia majora. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's condition?​

1. Oral antibiotics alone
2. Aspiration of the cyst with a syringe and needle
3. Immediate referral for surgical excision of the gland
4. Incision and drainage followed by placement of a Word catheter

Ans. 4) Incision and drainage placement of a Word catheter

Q9. Identify the structure that is not a content of region ‘X’ of the perineum marked in the diagram below.​

1. Anal sphincter complex
2. Branches pudendal nerve
3. External pudendal vessel
4. Ischioanal fossa

Ans. 3) External pudendal vessels

Q10. A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents with complaints of itching, burning, and a thick, white vaginal discharge. The symptoms started a few days ago and have progressively worsened. She denies any fever or abdominal pain. On examination, there is vulvar erythema and a thick, curdy white discharge adherent to the vaginal walls. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptives for birth control. A wet mount preparation reveals findings as shown in the image.​

Based on the clinical scenario, what is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient’s condition?

1. ​Oral Metronidazole
2. Topical Nystatin
3. Topical Clindamycin
4. Topical Miconazole

Ans. 4) Topical Miconazole

Also read: Development of Brain Diagrams with Explanation

Q11. A 42-year-old woman presents with continuous, painless vaginal bleeding for two months following 7 weeks of amenorrhea. She previously experienced heavy menstrual bleeding. Examination reveals a slightly enlarged uterus. A biopsy of the endometrium is shown below. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

1. ​Endometrial cancer
2. Metropathia hemorrhagica
3. Spontaneous abortion
4. Endometriosis

Ans. 2) Metropathia hemorrhagica

Q12. A 16-year-old girl presents with monthly cyclic abdominal pain for the past year. She has not yet experienced menarche. The patient appears well-developed for her age, with normal secondary sexual characteristics. External genital examination reveals the following.​

An ultrasound of the pelvis reveals a distended vagina filled with blood, but the uterus and ovaries appear normal. What is the most likely cause?

1.  Androgen insensitivity syndrome
2. Imperforate hymen
3. MRKH syndrome
4. Asherman syndrome

Ans. 2) Imperforate hymen

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