PSM Clinical and Non-Clinical Questinos for NEET PG/FMGE

Tackling a vast syllabus for high-stake exams like NEET PG and FMGE is no small feat. It can be very challenging to say the least. But, with the right strategies and by consistently practicing questions, you can easily ace the exam,

You must be aware of the fact that Preventive and Social Medicine (PSM) is one of the most scoring subjects and it includes both clinical and non-clinical questions. These questions are specifically designed to test your theoretical knowledge and practical application.

In this blog, we’ve compiled essential PSM questions with detailed explanations. Whether you’re just starting with your preparation or wish to brush up your knowledge, these questions are sure to give you a competitive edge in the exams.

At the end of the blog, we aim to make PSM simpler and more effective for you!

Q.1 Which of the following microbiological tests is considered for confirmatory evidence for recent fecal contamination of water?

1. Total Coliform Test  
2. Fecal streptococci  
3. Clostridium perfringens Test  
4. Heterotrophic Plate Count

Answer: 2) Fecal streptococci 

Explanation:

Fecal streptococci are considered the confirmatory evidence for recent fecal contamination of water.

Drinking water should be free from pathogenic microorganisms and fecal contamination. There are bacterial indicators that suggest fecal contamination of water.

Also read: Anatomy Clinical Questions For NEET PG/FMGE 2025

Q.2 Which of the following is best measured by McArdle's Index?

1. Cooling power of air
2. Heat stress
3. Predictable 4-hour sweat rate
4. Corrected effective temperature

Answer: 3) Predictable 4-hour sweat rate

Explanation:

The McArdle’s index measures the predictable 4-hour sweat rate.

McArdle’s index:

• Measures air comfort and predictable 4-hour sweat rate (P4SR).
• P4SR classifies thermal comfort levels as:
  • Comfort zone: 1 to 3 litres.
  • Just tolerable: 3 to 4.5 litres.
  • Intolerable: >4.5 litres.

Q.3 Based on the demographic transition model, which transition phase does India belong to?

1. Early expanding 
2. Late expanding 
3. Low stationery 
4. Declining 

Answer: 2) Late expanding phase

Explanation: India is currently in the late expanding phase (Stage III) of the demographic transition model, as the birth rate is declining but at a slower pace than the death rate, which is also declining.

Q.4  Which of the following statements best describes DALY? 

1. It measures years lost to disability alone
2. It measures years lost to death alone
3. It measures years lost to disability and death
4. None of the above

Answer: 3) It measures years lost to disability and death

Explanation:

DALY, or disability-adjusted life years, measures years of life lost to disability and premature death.

Also read: Entomology: Mosquitoes, Flies, Louse, Flea

Q.5 Choose the correct statements from the following:    

a)  BCG vaccine for TB-primary

b)  BCG for Ca bladder- secondary

c)  OCP for contraception-primary 

d)  OCP for PCOD-secondary

Options:

1. a,c
2. a,b,c,d
3. b,c,d
4. a,c,d

Answer: 2) a,b,c,d

Explanation: 

• Secondary prevention focuses on the early detection and prompt treatment of diseases to prevent their progression to more advanced or severe stages. This includes screening and early diagnosis.
• Primary prevention focuses on interventions to prevent the onset of disease.

Q.6 Which of the following accurately describes the differences between the oral polio vaccine (OPV) and the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)?

1. OPV is a killed formalized virus vaccine administered subcutaneously, while IPV is a live attenuated virus vaccine taken orally.
2. OPV provides both humoral and intestinal immunity and is effective in controlling epidemics, while IPV provides only humoral immunity and is not useful in controlling epidemics.
3. OPV requires less stringent storage and transport conditions compared to IPV.
4. Both OPV and IPV have the same shelf life and risk of vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis (VAPP).

Correct Answer: 2) OPV provides both humoral and intestinal immunity and is effective in controlling epidemics, while IPV provides only humoral immunity and is not useful in controlling epidemics.

Explanation:

Vaccination against poliovirus involves the use of two distinct types of vaccines: oral polio vaccine (OPV) and inactivated polio vaccine (IPV).

Q.7 Which of the following complications is the most common cause of death in measles?

1. Protein-losing enteropathy
2. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
3. Pneumonia
4. Otitis Media

Answer: 3) Pneumonia

Also read: Purification of Water

Q. 8 A 10-year-old boy from rural Uttar Pradesh presents with high fever, severe headache, vomiting, altered mental status, neck stiffness, and a positive Brudzinski's sign. He is unvaccinated and lives near rice fields and pig farms during the monsoon season. What is the most likely diagnosis and the investigation of choice for confirmation?

1. Bacterial meningitis; Blood culture
2. Herpes Simplex Encephalitis; PCR
3. Japanese Encephalitis; IgM ELISA 
4. Dengue fever; NS1 antigen test

Answer: 3) Japanese Encephalitis; IgM ELISA

Explanation:

Given the patient's symptoms and lack of vaccination, Japanese encephalitis is the most likely diagnosis. The investigation of choice for confirming JE is the IgM ELISA test for the JE virus, which detects specific antibodies in the patient's serum or cerebrospinal fluid.

Q.9 A 10-year-old boy was bitten on the forearm by a stray dog. The bite wound is superficial with mild bleeding. Based on the Indian rabies management guidelines, which of the following is not recommended for this patient?

1. Intramuscular 0.1 ml vaccination on days 0, 3, 7 and 28 is preferred.
2. 70% of rabies immunoglobulin should be administered around the wound.
3. The anterolateral aspect of the thigh is the recommended site for this patient.
4. The intradermal regimen consists of two doses administered at each of four sessions.

Answer: 1

Explanation:

Intradermal (ID) regimen: (OPTION 1)

• Dose: 0.1ml, 8 doses (2 at every visit) (OPTION 4)
• 4 visits scheduled on days: 0, 3, 7, 28 
• Administered on two sites simultaneously (2-2-2-2)
• Day 0 is the first dose of vaccination (not the first day of a dog bite)
• The National Rabies Control Program prefers ID over the IM regimen.

Intramuscular (IM) regimen:

• Administered as ID on Days: 0, 3, 7, and 28; and IM on Day 14 (2-2-2-0-2)

Also read: NEET PG High Yield Questions for PSM

Q.10 A child is diagnosed with diphtheria. The child's parent, who is unvaccinated and asymptomatic, is identified as a close contact. What is the most appropriate management for the parent?

1. Administer a single booster dose of diphtheria toxoid.
2. Administer diphtheria antitoxin (DAT) and complete the diphtheria toxoid series.
3. Administer prophylactic penicillin or erythromycin only.
4. No action is needed since the parent is asymptomatic.

Answer: 2) Administer diphtheria antitoxin (DAT) and complete the diphtheria toxoid series.

Explanation:

For unvaccinated close contacts, administer diphtheria antitoxin (DAT) for immediate passive immunity and complete the diphtheria toxoid series for long-term active immunity.

Q.11 In the right-sided skewed distribution graph given below, what is the correct order of the measures of central tendency?

Options

1. Mean < median < mode
2. Mean > median > mode
3. Mean = median > mode 
4. Mean = median = mode

Answer: 2) Mean > median > mode

Explanation: For a right-sided / Positively skewed curve, Mean > median > mode

An asymmetric curve forms when the mean, median, and mode are not equal at the coincidence point, leading to a skewed distribution.

The skewness of the curve is determined by the direction of the tail. 

• If the tail is right-sided, it is positively skewed.
• If the tail is left-sided, it is negatively skewed.
• The mean is the most affected central tendency in a skewed distribution.

Q.12 America uses Fahrenheit (°F) in temperature measurement, and India uses Celsius (°C). Which type of scale are these examples of?

1. Nominal scale
2. Ordinal scale
3. Interval scale
4. Ratio scale

Answer: 3) Interval scale

Explanation: 

An interval scale is used for data ordered with equal intervals between values but without a true zero point. 

Temperature measurements in Fahrenheit and Celsius are classic examples of interval scales because the difference between each degree is the same. Still, there is no absolute zero that represents the absence of temperature. 

Also read: Water: Sources, Diseases and Quality

Q.13 Match the following pneumoconiosis conditions with their related industries:

Pneumoconiosis	Exposure Industry
1. Silicosis	a. Textile Manufacturing
2. Asbestosis	b. Mining and Quarrying
3. Byssinosis	c. Construction and Shipbuilding
4. Anthracosis	d. Coal Mining

1. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
2. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
3. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
4. 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a

Answer: 2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

Q.14 Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) like face shields, goggles, gloves, and hazmat suits is disposed of in which coloured bin?

1. Blue
2. Yellow
3. Red
4. White

Answer: 3) Red

Explanation:

Most personal protective equipment (PPE) is disposed of in a yellow bag.

• Shoe covers, head covers, disposable linen gowns, and masks are disposed of in a yellow bag. (Option 2)
• Face shields, goggles, gloves, and hazmat suits are disposed of in a red bag as they are infected plastic waste. (Option 3)

Q.15 Which of the following is the correct sequence in a disaster management cycle?

1. Disaster impact→Response→Rehabilitation→Reconstruction→Mitigation→Preparedness
2. Disaster impact→Mitigation→Preparedness→Response→Rehabilitation→Reconstruction
3. Disaster impact→Response→Rehabilitation→Reconstruction→Preparedness→Mitigation
4. Disaster impact→Rehabilitation→Reconstruction→Response→Mitigation→Preparedness

Answer: 1) Disaster impact→Response→Rehabilitation→Reconstruction→Mitigation→Preparedness

Explanation:

Disaster management is a systematic approach using decisions and organizations to implement policies and strategies to lessen the impact of natural or man-made hazards.

Disaster management cycle:

Also read: INI-CET High Yield Questions for PSM

Q.16 What is the minimum number of postnatal visits by ASHA workers recommended in the case of a home delivery?

1. 4 visits on Day 3, 7, 14, and 42 
2. 4 visits on Day 1, 2, 3, 7, and 42
3. 6 visits on  Day 1, 2, 3, 7, 14, 21, and Day 42
4. 7 visits on  Day 1, 3, 7, 14, 21, Day 28, and Day 42

Answer: 4) 7 visits on  Day 1, 3, 7, 14, 21, 28, and Day 42

Explanation: Postnatal care and home-based newborn care (HBNC) are provided by ANMs and ASHAs after delivery. 

Q.17 Which primary healthcare principle is represented by the displayed image to ensure appropriate usability and quality?

1. Appropriate Technology
2. Community Participation
3. Intersectoral Coordination
4. Equitable Distribution

Answer: 1) Appropriate Technology

Explanation: 

The usage of Vaccine Vial Monitors (VVMs) to ensure vaccine usability and quality falls under the pillar of appropriate technology in primary healthcare. 

Q.18 Which organization is primarily responsible for developing the Health Index in India?

1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare 
2. NITI Aayog 
3. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) 
4. World Health Organization (WHO)

Answer: B) NITI Aayog 

Explanation:

• NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission of India in 2015 and acts as a think tank to the central and state governments on policy matters, including health.
• The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare collaborates with NITI Aayog and provides data but is not the primary organisation for evaluating and releasing the Health Index. (Option 1)
• The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) focuses on biomedical research and is not involved in creating the Health Index. (Option 3)
• The World Health Organization (WHO) is an international body providing health-related guidelines and support but not developing the Health Index for India. (Option 4)

Also read: Prevention Strategies: Levels of Prevention

Learning Objective: NITI Aayog develops the Health Index, tracking Indian states' and Union Territories' performance on health indicators like neonatal and under-5 mortality rates. Replacing the Planning Commission in 2015, it acts as a policy think tank. The Ministry of Health collaborates, but NITI Aayog is the primary evaluator and releaser of the Health Index.

References: Park’s Textbook of Preventive Medicine, 27th edition, Pg. 32 & Pg. 1002

Q.19 Which of the following statements best describes the Delphi technique?

1. A method of data collection where participants discuss and agree on a topic in person.
2. A qualitative research method that involves direct observation of participants in their natural environment.
3. A structured communication technique used in health research that relies on a panel of experts answering questionnaires in multiple rounds to achieve consensus.
4. A statistical analysis method used to interpret large datasets through the use of complex algorithms.

Answer: 3) A structured communication technique used in health research that relies on a panel of experts answering questionnaires in multiple rounds to achieve consensus.

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