NEET PG High Yield Questions For Anatomy

Mastering the NEET PG demands a strategic approach to preparation, with an emphasis on high-yield topics proving to be a successful tactic. This blog zeroes in on exactly that – a curated list of high-yield questions in Anatomy that are highly likely to appear on the NEET PG. By acquainting yourself with these questions and their detailed explanations, you'll deepen your understanding of Anatomy concepts, enhancing your confidence and readiness for exam day.

1. A 6-year-old boy with a recent chickenpox diagnosis has difficulty in walking, a broad-based, staggering gait, and slow, segmented speech with noticeable pauses, loss of inhibitory signals to which structure is responsible for his current pathology.

A. Golgi cell

B. Basket cell

C. Vestibular nuclei

D. Deep cerebellar nuclei

Correct Option D: Deep cerebellar nuclei

• This is a case of spinocerebellar ataxia caused by the damage of the spinocerebellar tract

• The present slide shows the Purkinje cell in the middle layer of the cerebellar cortex. They inhibit the deep cerebellar nuclei.
• The image shows 3 layers of the cerebral cortex - outer molecular layer, middle layer of Purkinje cells and the inner granular layer.
• Purkinje cells are a class of GABAergic neuroinhibitory neurons sending projections to the deep cerebellar nuclei (e.g., dentate nucleus).
• They are the only cells carrying output (efferent) fibers from the cerebellar cortex.
• Purkinje cells are the largest of five cell types in the cerebellar cortex.
• Send the dendritic process towards the outer molecular layer.
• Note: Outer molecular layer has less density of cells than an inner granular layer with a high density of cells.
• The 5 cell types are:
  • Stellate and basket cells in the outer molecular layer
  • Purkinje cells in the middle layer
  • Granule and golgi cell in the inner granular layer

Incorrect Options:

Option A: Golgi cell

• Inner granular layer: Contains granules & Golgi cells
• They receive input from the mossy fibers
• Granule cells use parallel fibers to communicate with other cells
• Mossy fibers running as the dorsal/ ventral spinocerebellar tract reach the ipsilateral cerebellum

Option B: Basket cell

• Outer molecular layer of the cerebellar cortex: Contains stellate & basket cells.
• They are inhibitory interneurons.

Option C: Vestibular nuclei

• Vestibular nuclei are present in the medulla and pons of the hindbrain.
• It functions in the equilibrium of the posture
• Note: Purkinje cells do send efferent fibres to vestibular nuclei, but comparatively they are few in number.

2. A 1 day-old- boy is brought by his parents to the neurology ward as he has a birth defect. He has a part of the spinal cord and areas outside of his body. An area with a small hairy patch along with a pouch-like bulge is noted on his back. Which among the following defects causes this condition?

A. Non-fusion of anteriorneuropore

B. Non-fusion of posterior neuropore

C. Non-fusion of both the anterior and posterior neuropore

D. None of the above

Correct Option B - Non-closure of the posterior (caudal) neuropore:

• Rachischisis is due to the non-closure of the posterior(caudal)neuropore and leads to an open spinal cord, with an open vertebra and skin, with CSF leaking outside.
  • Open spinal cord [exposed]
  • Open vertebra [spina bifida]
  • Open skin
  • Neural tube defects prevented by 400 mg/day of folic acid perinatally
• Patients with rachischisis experience motor and sensory deficits, chronic infections, and bladder dysfunction.

Incorrect Options:

Option A - Non-closure of anterior neuropore:

• Anencephaly: Non-closure of anterior(cranial) neuropore, resulting in a small brain, open outside with a skull defect.

Option C - Non-fusion of both the anterior and posterior neural pore:

• Craniorachischisis: A combination of anencephaly + rachischisis
• Occurs due to total failure of neural tube closure.
• The entire neural tube (Anterior and posterior neuropore) remains open.

Option D - None of the above:

• It is an incorrect statement as option A; Rachischisis is the correct answer.

3. As an intern in the general medicine department, you recall a patient in the Neurology department undergoing a neurological examination where the resident asked her to close her eyes, place a 'key' on her hand, and identify/recognize it. What aspect of neurological function does this test evaluate?

A. Posterior column

B. Posterior spinocerebellar tract

C. Spino-olivary tract

D. Spinothalamic tract

Correct Option A - Posterior column:

• Stereognosis: Ability to recognize the form and texture of an unseen familiar object.
• It is a function of the posterior (dorsal) column–medial lemniscus system

Incorrect Options:

Option B - Posterior spinocerebellar tract:

• The dorsal spinocerebellar tract (posterior spinocerebellar tract) conveys unconscious proprioceptive information from proprioceptors in the skeletal muscles and joints to the cerebellum.

Option C - Spino-olivary tract:

• Located in the anterior funiculus of the spinal cord, the spino-olivary tract enables the transmission of unconscious proprioception.
• It is also involved in balancing.

Option D - Spinothalamic tract;

• Spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature sensations from body.

4. Which of the following structures of the inner ear has been marked in the image below?

A. Macula

B. Utricle

C. Saccule

D. Endolymphatic sac

Correct Option D - Endolymphatic sac:

• It is the diagram of the inner ear and the structure marked is the Endolymphatic sac
• Utricle and saccule give off small ducts which fuse to form a Y-shaped endolymphatic duct that traverses the vestibular aqueduct. It terminates as an endolymphatic sac.

Bony

Labyrinth 

• The bony cavities form in the petrous part of the temporal bone.
• It consists of three parts.
  • The vestibule
  • The Cochlea
  • Three semicircular canals

Membranous

Labyrinth

• Membranous Labyrinth lies within the bony Labyrinth and consists of a system of ducts filled with endolymph.
• It consists of:
• Cochlear Duct
  • Scala Vestibuli is present above and Scala tympani below the cochlear duct.
• The basilar membrane has specialized epithelial cells called the Organ of Corti, which are responsible for hearing.
• The Saccule and Utricle are two membranous sacs situated in the vestibule.

Incorrect Options:

Option A - Macula:

• Maculae are the specialized areas of the neurosensory epithelium lining the medial walls of each saccule and the floor of each Utricle.

Option B - Utricle:

• The Utricle is a fibrous sac that communicates with the cochlear ducts.
• The Utricle is present in the posterosuperior compartment of the vestibule.

Option C - Saccule:

• Saccule is a small fibrous sac that communicating with the cochlear duct through ductus reunions.
• The saccule is present in the anteroinferior compartment of the vestibule.

5. A 32-year-old male involved in a road traffic accident presents with lower back pain radiating to the thigh, with loss of sensation in the groin and buttock area, and an X-ray showing sacral compression. Which structure passing through the sacral hiatus is involved in the pathology?

A. S2 spinal nerve

B. S3 spinal nerve

C. S4 spinal nerve

D. S5 spinal nerve

Correct Option D: S5 spinal nerve

• This is a case of compression of sacral nerves caused after a road traffic accident.
• In this case, the patient presents with lower back pain radiating to the thigh.
• The sacrum is a triangular bone.
• It forms the caudal end of the vertebral column.
• The fusion of five sacral vertebrae forms it.
• At the caudal end of the bone, an opening is formed by the nonfusion of the lamina of the fifth sacral vertebra, termed sacral hiatus.
• The structures passing through the sacral hiatus are a pair of 5th sacral nerves, a pair of coccygeal nerves, and filum terminale external.

Incorrect Option A, B, C:

• S2, S3, and S4 do not pass through the sacral hiatus.

Also Read: NEET PG Previous Year Question Papers of Last 6 Years

6. While performing the following procedure, the needle should be most efficiently inserted through which of the following structures?

A. Anterior fornix of the vagina

B. Posterior fornix of the vagina

C. Anterior wall of the rectum

D. Posterior wall of the uterine body

Correct option B: Posterior fornix of the vagina

• Posterior fornix of the vagina. The procedure shown in the above image is of Culdocentesis.
• Culdocentesis is a procedure to obtain fluid from the pouch of Douglas, typically used to evaluate for blood or other fluids in the pelvic cavity, especially in cases of suspected ectopic pregnancy or ruptured ovarian cysts. It involves puncturing the posterior vaginal fornix to access the cul-de-sac and aspirating fluid for analysis. A positive result may indicate conditions such as ectopic pregnancy or pelvic inflammatory disease, necessitating further evaluation and appropriate management.
• In the current practice, ultrasonography has replaced it and is rarely performed nowadays.

Incorrect options

Option A, C, and D:

• In culdocentesis, the needle is inserted through the posterior fornix of the vagina.

The puncture of other structures such as the anterior fornix of the vagina, anterior wall of the rectum, and posterior wall of the uterine body does not most efficiently aspirate rectouterine excavation.

7. A 4-day-old baby boy has not defecated after coming home from the hospital. His feeding is normal without any excessive vomiting. Rectal examination is normal. However, after the rectal examination, a large fecal mass is found in the colon and a large release of flatus and feces. Which of the following conditions is suspected?

A. Imperforate anus

B. Anal agenesis

C. Anorectal agenesis

D. Colonic aganglionosis

Option D: Colonic aganglionosis

• This baby boy suffers from colonic aganglionosis, also known as congenital megacolon or Hirschsprung disease, which results in the retention of fecal material, causing the normal colon to enlarge.
• The retention of fecal material results from a lack of peristalsis in the narrow segment of the colon distal to the enlarged colon.
• Hirschsprung disease results from the failure of formation of the parasympathetic ganglia in the wall of either a part or all of the colon and rectum.
• A biopsy of the narrow segment of the colon would reveal the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus caused by failure of neural crest migration.

Option A: Imperforate anus

• In the case of imperforate anus, the anal canal is either missing or does not have a hole and rectal examination is not possible.

Option B: Anal agenesis

• More than 90% of anal agenesis is present with fistulas. The above scenario has a classic presentation of Hirschsprung’s disease.

Option C: Anorectal agenesis

• This option is incorrect because the absence of an anal canal characterizes anorectal agenesis.

8. A 42-year-old male presents to your clinic for a routine checkup. He recently started going to the gym. While doing warmups at the gym, his instructor informs him that he must stretch and relax his hip flexors. Which of the following muscles is the strong hip flexor would you advise him to target as instructed?

A. Sartorius

B. Gluteus maximus

C. Iliopsoas

D. Pectineus

Option C: Iliopsoas

A hip flexor is a group of muscles that flex the hip, i.e., bringing the knee closer to the chest. 

• The iliopsoas is the chief flexor at the hip joint, assisted by Sartorius and Pectineus as the accessory muscles.
• Extension - Gluteus maximus; semimembranosus, semitendinosus and biceps femoris (the hamstrings)
• Abduction - Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, piriformis and tensor fascia latae
• Adduction - Adductors longus, brevis and magnus, pectineus and gracilis
• Lateral rotation - Biceps femoris, gluteus maximus, piriformis, assisted by the obturators, gemelli and quadratus femoris.
• Medial rotation - Anterior fibers of gluteus medius and minimus, tensor fascia latae

Incorrect Options:

Option A: Sartorius

• The sartorius muscle is a thin, long, superficial muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the longest muscle in the human body.
• Originates from anterior superior iliac supine.
• It helps flex both hip and knee but is not a major hip flexor like iliopsoas.

Option B: Gluteus Maximus

• Gluteus Maximus is the chief Extensor at the hip joint, assisted by hamstrings as the accessory muscles.
• It is not a hip flexor.

Option D: Pectineus

• The pectineus is a flat muscle found in the superomedial part of the anterior thigh.
• It originates from the superior pubic ramus (pectineal line of the pubis) and inserts into the pectineal line of the femur, linea aspera of the femur.
• It is not a major hip flexor but adducts the thigh, in conjunction with the remaining adductor muscles gluteus medius and minimus.

9. A 56-year-old man presented with symptoms suggestive of a heart attack, and cardiac catheterization revealed a thrombus in the artery marked as 1 in the diagram below. Which of the following arteries is not a branch of the artery marked as 1?

A. Anterior interventricular artery

B. SA nodal artery

C. Posterior interventricular artery

D. AV nodal artery

Option A: Anterior interventricular artery

• The artery marked as 1 is the right coronary artery.
• The right coronary artery arises from the anterior aortic sinus of the ascending aorta and runs in the right coronary sulcus (between the right atrium and right ventricle). It runs in the right coronary sulcus anteriorly and gives the SA nodal artery, which supplies the SA node. Then the right coronary artery runs in the coronary sulcus posteriorly and gives off the posterior interventricular artery (also known as a posterior descending artery), which supplies the AV node, posterior 1/3rd of the interventricular septum, posterior 2/3rd of walls of ventricles and posteromedial papillary muscles. The right coronary artery also supplies the right atrium. It gives off a branch called the right marginal artery, which supplies the lateral wall of the right ventricle.
• The left coronary artery arises from the posterior aortic sinus of the ascending aorta, runs between the pulmonary artery trunk and the left auricle, and then emerges on the surface of the heart. It branches into an anterior interventricular artery (also known as the left anterior descending artery) add and the left circumflex artery.

Option B: SA nodal artery

• The SA nodal artery is a branch of the right coronary artery that supplies the SA node.

 Option C: Posterior interventricular artery.

• The posterior interventricular artery is a branch of the right coronary artery.
• It supplies the AV node, posterior 1/3rd of the interventricular septum, posterior 2/3rd of walls of ventricles, and posteromedial papillary muscles.

Option D: AV nodal artery

• The AV nodal artery is a branch of the posterior interventricular artery, which is a branch of the right coronary artery.
• It supplies the AV node.

10. A 24-year-old cyclist participated in Tour de France competition. While making a sharp turn downslope, the cyclist suffered a fall and injured his right shoulder. In the hospital, an X-ray was taken, and it revealed that the patient had a fracture of the neck of the humerus. Which of the following is the most likely nerve involved?

A. Musculocutaneous nerve

B. Median nerve

C. Ulnar nerve

D. Axillary nerve

Correct Option D: Axillary nerve

• The axillary nerve (C5, C6) runs is accompanied by the posterior circumflex humeral vessels, which transverse a quadrangular space and divide it into anterior and posterior branches.
• The anterior branch supplies the anterior deltoid and gives off a few small cutaneous branches that pierce the deltoid and supply the skin over its lower part.
• The posterior branch supplies the teres minor and gives off the upper lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm, supplying the skin overlying the lower half of the deltoid on the lateral aspect of the shoulder.
• The axillary nerve is damaged by the dislocation of the shoulder or fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus.
• The damage to the axillary nerve presents the following clinical features:
  • Impaired abduction of the shoulder due to paralysis of the deltoid and teres minor muscles.
  • Sensations are lost over the lower half of the deltoid (the ‘regimental badge’ area of the sensory loss) due to involvement of the upper lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm.
  • Loss of shoulder contour with prominence of greater tubercle of the humerus due to wasting of the deltoid muscle.

Incorrect Options:

Option A: Musculocutaneous nerve

• Musculocutaneous nerve injury is caused by upper trunk compression, which causes decreased biceps reflex, and loss of forearm flexion and supination; also, loss of sensation occurs over the radial and dorsal forearm.

Option B: Median nerve

• Median nerve injury caused by Supracondylar fracture of the humerus, which causes proximal nerve lesion.
• Carpal tunnel syndrome and wrist laceration cause distal lesions of the nerve. It presents with "Ape hand" and "Hand of benediction"; loss of wrist flexion and function of the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis.

Option C: Ulnar nerve

• Ulnar nerve proximal lesion causes ulnar claw hand on digit extension and radial deviation of wrist upon flexion.
• The distal lesion causes decreased flexion of ulnar fingers, abduction and adduction of fingers (interossei), thumb adduction, actions of ulnar 2 lumbrical muscles, and loss of sensation over ulnar 1 and a half fingers, including hypothenar eminence.

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