Medicine Important Questions for NEET PG/FMGE

We understand that covering an extensive syllabus while preparing for competitive exams like NEET PG and FMGE can be pretty overwhelming. You might be stuck in the loop of consistently preparing and still feeling that you’re way behind.

We’ve got one of the most effective ways for you to stay on top of your preparation. All you need to do is focus on high-yield topics and practice questions that replicate the exam format. This not only helps you consolidate your knowledge but also boost your confidence in tackling challenging scenarios during the actual exam.

In this blog, we’ve curated a list of important questions tailored specifically to help you ace the exam. At the end of the blog, you’ll have a list that will help you streamline your preparation for the big day.

Q.1 The patient sustained a fracture of his tibia and burns on his legs when his electric scooter caught fire. On day 3 of admission, he develops respiratory distress. Vitals show tachycardia with wide split S2 and elevated JVP. CXR is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Options

1. Pulmonary embolism 
2. Fat embolism 
3. Nosocomial pneumonia 
4. Heart failure 

Answer: 1) Pulmonary embolism 

Explanation: Pulmonary embolism (PE) is the likely diagnosis; the wide split S2, tachycardia, elevated JVP, and Hampton hump on the chest X-ray suggest right heart strain and pulmonary infarction, typical of PE.

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Q.2 A person is brought to emergency after bee stings. He has hives all over his body, pulse is low volume 110/min, cold clammy extremities with BP of 70/50 mm Hg and peripheral cyanosis. Auscultation shows bilateral conducted sounds with rattling of secretions. GCS is 12/15. Which of the following is correct about this patient? 

Options

1. Adrenaline 1 mg intramuscular 1:10000 every 5 minutes with high flow oxygen 
2. Adrenaline 0.5 mg intramuscular 1:1000 every 5 minutes with intubation 
3. Adrenaline 1 mg intramuscular 1:10000 every 5 minutes with cricothyroidotomy 
4. Adrenaline 0.5 mg intramuscular 1:1000 every 5 minutes with 2 L saline 

Answer: 4) Adrenaline 0.5 mg intramuscular 1:1000 every 5 minutes with 2 L saline 

Explanation: The patient is in anaphylactic shock with signs of airway involvement (rattling sounds, cyanosis) and hypotension. In this   he requires adrenaline 0.5 mg intramuscular 1:1000 every 5 minutes with 2 L saline .

Q.3 An HIV-positive patient presents with a fever and neck rigidity. LP was done, and CSF examination shows lymphocytosis, normal sugar, and increased protein. A special study, shown below, is done. Which test is done to confirm the diagnosis?​​

Options

1. CSF ELISA for cryptococcal antigen 
2. Lateral flow assay 
3. India ink stain 
4. Beta 1,3 glucan test 

Answer: 1) CSF ELISA for cryptococcal antigen  

Explanation:

An HIV-positive patient with fever, neck rigidity, lymphocytosis, normal glucose, and elevated protein in the CSF raises concern for fungal meningitis, particularly Cryptococcus neoformans, a common cause in immunocompromised individuals.

• The special test shown above is India ink stain, where Cryptococcus neoformans appear as round, budding yeast surrounded by a clear capsule (halo) against a dark background.

Q.4 A diabetic patient sustains a fall. Since he is not able to talk properly, a NCCT head was done. What is the best step in the management of this patient? ​​

Options

1. Mannitol 
2. Vitamin K and FFP 
3. Thrombolyse with streptokinase 
4. Stabilize and do neurosurgery consult 

Answer: 4) Stabilize and do neurosurgery consult 

Explanation: 

The radiograph shows a concave-convex hyperdensity, indicating a subdural hematoma, common after a fall in the elderly or those on anticoagulation. The next step in managing this patient is to stabilize the patient and consult neurosurgery for further evaluation.

• Source of bleeding in SDH: Bridging veins
• Management:
  • Observation along with regular monitoring with imaging is sufficient in case of minor bleeding.
  • Surgical management is needed in cases of major bleeds.

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Q.5 A 25-year-old young woman comes with weight loss, palpitations, heat intolerance, and tremors. She has the following look on examination. Workup shows decreased TSH levels and free T3, T4 elevated. Which of the following statements is not true about this condition?​​

Options

1. Retraction of muller muscle 
2. Myxedema will involve pretibial area 
3. Start levothyroxine and monitor TSH after one month 
4. Start steroids to prevent visual loss 

Answer: 3) Start levothyroxine and monitor TSH after one month 

Explanation: The most likely diagnosis is Graves' disease, which causes hyperthyroidism and ophthalmopathy, explaining the retracted eyelids. Levothyroxine is used for hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism, so it is not appropriate for this patient.

Q.6 An 18-year-old girl presents with left wrist joint swelling, causing difficulty in working on the laptop. On examination, she has a pan-systolic murmur. ECG shows PR interval prolongation and positive CRP. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Options 

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Ankylosing spondylitis
3. Rheumatic fever 
4. Psoriatic arthritis  

Answer : 3) Rheumatic fever 

Explanation : As the patient presents with left wrist joint swelling (arthritis)  along with Positive CRP (acute inflammation), pan-systolic murmur (valvular heart disease), and prolonged PR interval, she is most likely suffering from rheumatic fever.

Q7. An alcoholic presents with a painful and swollen 1st MTP. Aspiration reveals increased Leucocytes > 2000 cell/cu mm. There is no history of travel, dysuria, dysentery, sexual contact in the patient. BUN and serum uric acid level is normal. Clinical Diagnosis is?

Options

1. Acute gouty Arthritis  
2. Septic arthritis 
3. Reactive arthritis 
4. Pseudo Gout 

Answer: 1) Acute gouty Arthritis  

Explanation: 

Although this patient has a normal serum uric acid level, he is an alcoholic who presents a swelling in his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Joint aspiration shows mildly increased leucocytes, leading to a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis because, during an acute attack, the serum uric acid level may appear to be falsely normal or low.

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Q8. A patient presents with wheezing that improves with as-needed albuterol use. Spirometry shows FEV1 ranging from 70% to 83%, and the patient experiences nighttime chest tightening more than twice a week. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Options 

1. Continue with albuterol
2. Replace with salmeterol twice daily
3. Start Tab prednisolone
4. Add inhaled Fluticasone twice daily 

Answer : 4) Add inhaled Fluticasone twice daily. 

Explanation: Stepwise asthma management recommends adding a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS - fluticasone) as the next step for persistent asthma. 

As this patient has wheezing and symptom relief with albuterol (suggestive of asthma) and spirometry findings of FEV1 between 70% and 83%, along with nighttime symptoms more than twice a week, he is most likely suffering from uncontrolled persistent asthma.

Q9. The farmer presents with severe leg pain, fever, chills, retro orbital pain, bilateral conjunctival suffusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Options

1. Dengue fever
2. Leptospirosis
3. Malaria
4. Scrub typhus 

Answer: 2) Leptospirosis

Explanation: Based on the patient's clinical features of severe leg pain, fever, chills, retro-orbital pain, bilateral conjunctival suffusion and occupation, he is most likely suffering from leptospirosis 

Q 10. A patient presents with the following laboratory values: pH 7.2, pCO₂ 20 mmHg, HCO₃- 5 mEq/L, Na⁺ 136 mEq/L, Cl^- 110 mEq/L. Which of the following is correct about this condition?

Options

1. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis 
2. High anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis 
3. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic alkalosis 
4. Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic acidosis 

Answer: 2) High anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis 

Explanation: Based on the ABG and electrolyte finding 

• pH = 7.2: acidemia (normal range: 7.35–7.45).
• pCO₂ = 20 mmHg - Low (normal: 35–45 mmHg), indicating that the respiratory system is compensating by hyperventilating to blow off CO₂.
• HCO₃⁻ = 5 mEq/L
• Na⁺ = 136 mEq/L
• Cl⁻ = 110 mEq/L

Anion Gap (AG) = Na⁺ - (Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻)
    = 136 - (110 + 5)
    = 21 mEq/L (normal AG: 8–12 mEq/L) - High anion gap 

Low pCO₂ suggests respiratory compensation.

Based on Winter’s formula: 

Expected pCO2 =(1.5 × HCO3−) + 8 ± 2

= (1.5 × 5) + 8 ± 2 = 15.5  ± 2 mm hg 

The measured pCO₂ is 20 mmHg, which is slightly higher than expected, indicating a mild degree of respiratory alkalosis coexisting with partially compensated metabolic acidosis.

Thus the patient is suffering from a high anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory alkalosis 

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Q.11 A patient presents with ptosis, muscle weakness that improves with rest, and engorged veins on the thorax. A CT scan reveals a mass in the thoracic region. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

1. Thymoma
2. Pancoast tumor
3. Adenocarcinoma
4. Small cell lung carcinoma 

Answer: 1) Thymoma

Explanation: The given clinical scenario of the patient with ptosis and muscle weakness improving with rest classically points towards myasthenia gravis, associated with thymoma (44%). 

Q.12 A patient with CKD comes to the hospital with complaints of palpitations. ECG is done. What's the most likely diagnosis? ​

Options:

1. Hyperkalemia
2. Hypokalemia
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Hypocalcemia

Answer: 1) Hyperkalemia

Explanation: The given ECG finding shows decreased amplitude of the P wave, broad QRS, and progressing towards a sine wave pattern, which is indicative of hyperkalemia.

Hyperkalemia: (ECG Findings)

• Mild Hyperkalemia (5.5–6.5 mM): Increased extracellular potassium affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in tall, peaked T waves.
• Moderate Hyperkalemia (6.5–7.5 mM): Further increases in potassium depress intracardiac conduction, leading to progressive PR and QRS interval prolongation and loss of P waves.
• Severe Hyperkalemia (7.0–8.0 mM): The QRS complex widens, and P waves disappear. A sine-wave pattern may develop, indicative of impending ventricular fibrillation or asystole.

Q.13 A patient presents with a fever of 102 F with cough, foul-smelling sputum, and digital clubbing. CXR is given. What is the most likely diagnosis?​​

Options:

1. Community-acquired pneumonia 
2. Pneumatocele 
3. Empyema 
4. Lung abscess 

Answer: 4) Lung abscess

Explanation: Given the combination of fever, foul-smelling sputum, and digital clubbing, the most likely diagnosis is a lung abscess. The CXR shows cavitary lesions at an air-fluid level, which are characteristic of lung abscesses.

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Q.14 What is the expected auscultation finding in a patient with the following CXR?​​

Options:

1. Kussmaul breathing 
2. Paradoxical breathing 
3. Apneustic breathing 
4. Bronchial breathing 

Answer: 2) Paradoxical breathing

Explanation: The given X-ray finding shows multiple rib fractures indicative of a flail chest, & the expected auscultation finding would be paradoxical breathing.

• Paradoxical breathing occurs when a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction during breathing, typically seen with a flail chest (multiple rib fractures in more than one place).
• A flail chest results in paradoxical motion: the fractured segment of the chest moves inward during inspiration (when the rest of the chest expands) and outward during expiration (when the rest of the chest contracts), leading to abnormal and inefficient ventilation.

Q.15 The patient is brought to the emergency room with a loss of consciousness. The NCCT head and CTA are shown below. What is the diagnosis?​​

Options:

1. Intraparenchymal haemorrhage with AV malformation.
2. Subarachnoid haemorrhage with aneurysm 
3. Subdural haemorrhage 
4. Epidural haemorrhage 

Answer: 2) Subarachnoid haemorrhage with aneurysm 

Explanation:

The NCCT shows hyperintensity in the basal cisterns, indicating subarachnoid haemorrhage.

CTA shows an intracranial aneurysm associated with SAH.

• Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is the bleeding into the subarachnoid space, most commonly due to a ruptured saccular (berry) aneurysm (the most common cause of non-traumatic SAH). 
• Other causes include vascular malformations or extensions of intracerebral haemorrhage.
• Saccular aneurysms are common at arterial bifurcations in the Circle of Willis. 
• Most occur in the anterior circulation; 20% of patients have multiple aneurysms.

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Q.16 A patient presents with recurrent lung infections and a chest X-ray given below. What is the most likely diagnosis?​​

1. Kartagener syndrome 
2. Cystic fibrosis 
3. DiGeorge syndrome
4. Down syndrome 

Answer: 1) Kartagener syndrome

Explanation:

The clinical presentation of a patient with recurrent lung infections and chest X-rays showing dextrocardia suggests Kartagener syndrome.

Kartagener syndrome:

• It is a primary ciliary dyskinesia characterised by the classical triad of situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis.
• Inheritance: autosomal recessive.
• It occurs due to ultrastructural defects in the dynein arm of cilia, resulting in impaired mucociliary clearance mechanisms.
• Male patients can have infertility due to asthenospermia (immotile spermatozoa due to impaired sperm flagella function).

Q.17 A 25-year-old young woman comes with weight loss, palpitations, heat intolerance, and tremors. She had exophthalmos on examination. What is the diagnosis?

1. Cushing disease
2. Graves’ disease
3. Addison’s disease
4. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 

Answer: Option B) Graves’ disease

Explanation:

The clinical vignette of a young woman with weight loss, palpitations, heat intolerance, tremors, and exophthalmos suggests Grave’s disease.

Graves’ disease:

• It is an autoimmune disorder due to the production of TSH receptor-stimulating immunoglobulins, causing hyperthyroidism.
• It is characterised by the triad of
  • Thyrotoxicosis.
  • Infiltrative ophthalmopathy (exophthalmos).
  • Dermopathy (pretibial myxedema).

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Q.18 Which of the following is correct about pheochromocytoma?

1. 90% are bilateral cases
2. Associated with MEN2A
3. 90% of tumors are extra-adrenal
4. 90% of tumors are malignant

Answer: 2) Associated with MEN2A

Explanation: Pheochromocytoma is associated with MEN2A (Sipple syndrome).

MEN2A syndrome:

• Chromosome 10/RET gene involvement.
• Associated with
  • Medullary thyroid carcinoma (90%).
  • Pheochromocytoma (>50%).
  • Parathyroid adenoma (10-25%).

Q.19 A mother brought her 2-year-old child to the OPD with complaints of lack of weight gain, abdominal pain on eating, and poor eating habits. The child was advised a gluten-free diet, after which there was improvement in the general condition and weight gain. What is the probable diagnosis?

1. Celiac disease
2. Topical intestinal sprue
3. Intestinal malabsorption
4. Whipple disease 

Answer: 1) Celiac disease

Explanation:

The given clinical vignette suggests celiac disease (gluten-sensitive enteropathy).

Celiac disease:

• The usual presentation of this condition is after the age of 6 months, once the complementary feeds, such as cereals and fruits, are initiated.
• Cereals like wheat, oats, rye, and barley contain a protein called gliadin/gluten, and children suffering from celiac disease are allergic to it.
• Antibodies against this will damage enterocytes and microvilli, reducing the small intestine's surface area.

Q.20 A patient presented with early satiety and abdominal pain. On examination, grossly enlarged spleen and liver are palpable. Workup shows low Hb with WBC-50000/mm3 and platelet count of 5 lac/cu.mm. P. smear shows increased basophils with a shift to the left. Which of the following will cause this presentation?

1. CML
2. CLL
3. ALL
4. AML 

Answer: 1) CML

Explanation: The clinical presentation of a patient with early satiety, abdominal pain, splenomegaly, anemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, and basophilia with a left shift suggests chronic myeloid leukemia.

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML):

• It is a myeloproliferative disorder characterised by overproduction of myeloid cells.
• It occurs due to the translocation of the Philadelphia chromosome: t(9;22)(q.34.1, q11.2).

• BCR-ABL (hybrid oncogene) balanced translocation occurs between the long arm of chromosome 9 to the long arm of chromosome 22.
• It results in the production of a 210 kDa novel oncoprotein.

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Q21. 56-year-old presented with fever, chills, and cough with sputum. BP-140/90 mmHg, PR- 100/min, RR -18, SpO2- 85% at room air. CXR is shown below. What is the probable diagnosis?

1. Lobar pneumonia
2. Tubercular pleural effusion
3. Empyema
4. Interstitial pneumonia

Answer: 1. Lobar pneumonia

Explanation:

The patient's symptoms—fever, cough with sputum, hypoxia—and the CXR findings of consolidated opacity in a single lobe are classic for lobar pneumonia.

Q22. Which of the following mortality-reducing beta-blockers are helpful in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?

1. Bisoprolol
2. Pindolol
3. Labetalol
4. Propranolol

Answer: 1. Bisoprolol

Explanation:

Bisoprolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker proven to reduce mortality in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)

Q23. A 40-year-old woman came with the complaints of fever, night sweats, generalized itching, and unintentional weight loss of 10% in the last 3 months. On examination, she has enlarged cervical and axillary lymph nodes. Histopathological examination of the excision lymph node biopsy is shown below. What would the likely diagnosis and treatment option be?​​

1. NHL– RCHOP
2. HL- ABVD regimen
3. Multiple myeloma: dexamethasone with lenalidomide
4. Sarcoidosis: Prednisolone

Answer: 2. HL-ABVD regimen

Explanation:

History of B symptoms (fever, night sweats, weight loss, itching) and lymphadenopathy, combined with Reed-Sternberg cells on histopathology, confirms HL, treated with the ABVD regimen.

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